For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
-John 3:16

John 3:16 is one of the most well known verses of the bible. It can be said that it summarizes what most Christians believe. The most crucial component of this verse is the phrase “only begotten son”…. a belief in whom guarantees eternal life. The word “only” in that context implies the “son” (Jesus) was one of a kind and that there is NO OTHER who was a begotten son of God. But was Jesus really the only begotten son of God?

Lets have a look at Psalms 2:7, which was written way before John 3:16…


I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, “Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”
-Psalms 2:7

This is the only other place in the bible, where we read about God “begetting” a son. It makes it clear that Jesus could NOT have been the only one who was the “begotten”, as claimed in John 3:16. In other words, John 3:16 is inconsistent with whats on the record about another man being a “begotten” son of God. Now, this isn’t even about theology, its basic grammar. One would need to re-define the definition of the word “only” or “begotten” to argue otherwise that Jesus is the only “begotten” son of God. (And I get the feeling some will do so)

Its like me showing you my cellphone and telling you “this is the only phone I have ever used”…while keeping my old phone in my locker. It would either mean I am lying OR that I’ve forgotten about my first phone. Either way, my claim of having used only one phone would be inconsistent with what I have on record. i.e – Having used more than one phone.
(P.S – My first phone was a Nokia 3310. It still works fine but I cant use it anymore because the battery stopped working… and I cant find a replacement battery for it in stores)

So, one can ask…. was the author of John was unaware of Psalm 2:7?
It certainly appears so…considering how an older book in the bible shows David was also said to have been a “begotten son” of God. It invalidates John 3:16s statement about Jesus being the “only” begotten son of God. Ideally, John 3:16 should have read, one of the begotten sons as that would have been more accurate and consistent with biblical record.

It would be even more complicated for those who believe Jesus is the God of the OT…. because, it would mean that Jesus first made David his “begotten son”(!) and then, in the NT Jesus goes on to be called the “son of David”… the same person who Jesus begat in the OT.

http://www.abovetopsecret.com/forum/thread888238/pg1#pid15098576

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