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Video presentation of my post from January 18th, 2014 – “No one can take my life from me” – Was Jesus really killed?

1. The Bible tells us that Ishmael, son of Abraham through his second wife Hagar (Genesis 16:3), was sent away with his mother to the ”east” where he settled and started his own family. We also read that Abraham was distressed when he was asked to send Ishmael away(Genesis 21:11-13) and that God was ”with” Ishmael as he was growing up (Genesis 21:20).

Though the Bible mentions nothing about Ishmael’s life as an adult, it does record that Ishmael was present at Abraham’s funeral (Genesis 25:9). From this event, the following can be gathered:
a) Ishmael maintained a close bond with his father and step-brother. How else could he have heard of Abraham’s passing? And why else would he travel back to the land of his birth to attend a funeral?
b) Ishmael was most certainly worshiping the God of Abraham; he did not return to bury Abraham as a polytheist/idolater. The same cannot be said of Abraham’s other sons through Keturah, as they were not present at the funeral.
c) Ishmael would have certainly raised his children to worship the God of Abraham; he would have established a community of monotheists away from the land of Canaan where Abraham and Isaac lived.

2. Abraham did not send Ishmael away and forget about him. Rabbinic traditions and the 21st chapter of the Book of Jasher (referred to in 2Samuel 1:18 and Joshua 10:13) mention Abraham’s travels to the land where Ishmael lived. In summary:

Afterward Abraham went to see Ishmael, and, according to his promise to Sarah, stopped at his son’s tent without alighting from his camel. Ishmael was not within; his wife refused Abraham food, and beat her children and cursed her husband within Abraham’s hearing. Abraham thereupon asked her to tell Ishmael when he returned that an old man had asked that he change the peg of the tent. Ishmael understood that it was his father, took the hint, and drove away his wife. He then married another woman, named Faṭimah, who, when three years later Abraham came again to see his son, received him kindly; therefore Abraham asked her to tell Ishmael that the peg was good.
Source: Jewish encyclopedia

3. That Abraham traveled to meet Ishmael is in harmony with the Islamic belief that Abraham built the Kaaba along with Ishmael (Surah 2:127); this event implies that Abraham was physically present with Ishmael in Arabia. Thus, Abraham came to be known in Arabia during the lifetime of Ishmael. The later Arabs fell into idolatry and venerated Abraham, indicating that they had retained the memory of Abraham being their distant ancestor. According to a hadith (Bukhari volume 4, book 55, number 571) the Kaaba, upon conquest by Mohammad, was found to contain images of Abraham and Ishmael – obviously placed by pre-Islamic Arabs.

4. Abraham – through Ishmael – is thus historically linked to the the Kaaba, the Arabs and Islam. There is no denying that the Arabs, like the Israelites, had fallen into idolatry and polytheism; that changed in the 7th century AD when Mohammad conquered Mecca and restored to Arabia the monotheistic worship of the God of Abraham.

Here I have listed a number of youtube videos in which Rabbis and practising Jews from different parts of the world speak on Islam and Allah.

Since Christians have an affinity towards Jews, who also have the Old Testament (TaNaKh), I thought it would be better to let the Jews explain to their Christian friends the truth that Allah is the God of the Torah. But of course, the truth about Islam and Allah remains regardless of what a Jew or anybody else thinks.

Now, not all Jews feel the same way. Indeed, there exists a diversity of views on this subject among Jews; but it still remains that many practicing Jews recognize that the concept of God in Islam and Judaism are identical.

(Disclaimer  :  Please note that I may not agree with the views of these Rabbis on various other matters.)

 

Jewish Rabbi Praises Islam

Jewish Rabbi Admits Islam Is The Oldest Religion

Jewish Rabbi: Islam is religion of future

Jewish Rabbi Admits Muslims Are Blessed (interviewed by John Pastor Hagee)

Jewish Rabbi Worships Allah

Jew explains why Allah is the one and only God

Jew explains Allah – God of ISRAEL

 

Enjoy!

This thread attempts to clear up certain misconceptions that Jesus appeared to counter and dismiss the Old Testament law, and that Jesus had nothing to do with the Old Testament God who gave these Laws. A lot of my points are taken from another thread that I had participated in recently.

1. Jesus said the Law is to remain “till heaven and earth disappear.” 
Christians often quote Jesus’ famous words “let he without sin cast the first stone” and claim it as “proof” that the Israelite Laws calling for harsh punishments were done away with by Jesus. The truth is that Jesus, using God-given authority and discretion, spared the adulteress to remind the hypocritical Pharisees of their own sins. Jesus turned the tables on the Pharisees only because he saw them as a bigger moral problem than the adulteress. It was NOT because he taught that the Law was done with as Christians claim. On the contrary, Jesus declared that the law was to remain until heaven and earth disappear.

“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke or a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. – Matthew 5:17-18 

Don’t tell me everything was accomplished when Jesus was nailed to the cross. Jesus said nothing about this either on the way to the cross, or after his resurrection. The idea that the law was done with is a Christian concoction. As we can see, heaven and earth are still around, and so every part of the law remains – according to Jesus.

2. Jesus constantly referred to the Old Testament God, Law and prophets. 
Christians dance around the issue of the Law by claiming that the “Law” spoken of by Jesus was really not the same as the “Law” mentioned in the Old Testament, but something else. I’ve also come across some “Christians” who claim that the God of the OT was different from the One who Jesus called God (I’ll address this point later.)

The truth is that there is nothing to prove that there were actually 2 sets of laws mentioned in the Bible… a harsh OT law and a softer law that Jesus referred to, as some people calling themselves “Christians” claim. There was only one Law, given by God to Moses, who brought it to the Israelites, which Jesus referred to. Therfore, it means Jesus also kept referring to the OT God who gave the law to Moses and spoke to the prophets.

It is also made obvious that Jesus was referring to the Law mentioned in the Old Testament when he said “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets. If Jesus was talking about the prophets of the OT, then its obvious that he was talking about the OT Law as well. It’s simply ridiculous to claim he was referring to the OT Prophets but spoke of some other Law. Then again, I wouldn’t be surprised if some Christians actually go on to claim that very thing.

Then we have Jesus doing the following :
– Jesus referred to the 10 commandments and the law (given to Moses by the OT God)
– Jesus referred to the custom of offering gifts on the altar (according to OT law)
– Jesus referred to Isaiah, Noah, Abraham, Jonah, Moses etc. (prophets who the OT God spoke to)
– Jesus revered the temple where Israelites worshiped (the OT God)
– Jesus acknowledged the Pharisees authority (who followed the OT law and sat in the seat of Moses)
– Jesus ate the Passover meal (food prepared according to the OT law)

So, Christians who claim Jesus’ God was not the God of the OT, why did Jesus go around referring to OT prophets who the OT God spoke to? Why did Jesus refer to OT laws and custom? We see all those references to things we know from OT because Jesus operated within the existing Israelite Laws and customs. It is simply impossible to separate Jesus from the Old Testament God, the prophets, the laws and practices. “Christians” who try and do so are living in their own imagination.

(* I don’t like using the term “the OT God”, but I am just using it here to make a point that “the OT God” was the God of Jesus)

3. Shocker : Jesus actually acknowledged the Pharisees authority. 
“The scribes and the Pharisees have seated themselves in the chair of Moses; therefore all that they tell you, do and observe, but do not do according to their deeds; for they say things and do not do them. – Matthew 23:2-3 

Jesus is known to have severely criticized the Pharisees calling them white-washed graves, hypocrites and what not. One would imagine that Jesus would have instructed people to rebel against these wicked Pharisees.

Yet, amazingly Jesus acknowledged the authority of the Pharisees, and instructed people to “do and observe” as the Pharisees said. The big question is, was Jesus being a hypocrite for opposing the Pharisees while at the same time, instructing people to do and observe as they said? Or was there a deeper reason as to why he taught people to do and observe as the Pharisees said?

Jesus called out the Pharisees on their hypocrisy, but even that was no reason for Jesus to dismiss the very Law that the Pharisees were authorities on. Much like how your country’s law is more important than corrupt authorities, the Law of God was more important to Jesus than the human authorities. Jesus obviously respected Moses and the Law, and thought people to follow the Law, with a few tweaks here and there. Which is why he said the law was to remain, and even went on to acknowledge the authority of Pharisees, who were (unfortunately) seated in Moses’ chair, i.e- as authorities on Israelite laws. Jesus instructed people to do as the Pharisees say. Nowhere did Jesus ever tell them to “do as they say, except the nasty bits”.

We also know that the Pharisees were known to sentence people to death by stoning according to the Law. So if Jesus wanted people to do as the Pharisees said and if the Pharisees were obsessed with the Law… and if Jesus never mentioned anything about certain parts of the law not applying anymore….it can safely be concluded that Jesus acknowledged even the laws that required stoning.

 

http://www.abovetopsecret.com/forum/thread986318/pg1#pid17281085

Indeed, Satan is an enemy to you; so take him as an enemy. 
– Koran 35:6 

Satans depiction in the Bible is incomplete as it leaves out a vital piece of information – a motive.
Why would Satan attempt to jinx Adam and Eve – a pair of innocent humans posing no direct threat towards him? Why would Satan risk suffering Gods punishment by corrupting Gods newest creation? IMO, the Bibles account regarding this is incomplete and only leaves us with more questions than answers.

Islam provides the complete back story to the events in the garden. According to the Islamic account, Adam had become the target of Satans wrath, not for anything he did, but because his creation led to Satans expulsion. The story in brief is that Satan – created from fire – considered himself superior to Adam who was made of clay. Satan arrogantly argued over his Maker over this, and ended up being punished. In retaliation, Satan vowed to mislead as many humans as he could. He said “My Lord, because You have put me in error, I will surely make disobedience attractive to them on earth, and I will mislead them all. Except, among them, Your chosen servants.”- Koran 15:39 

God replied saying those who follow Satan would end up in hell and that Satan only has power over those who follow him.

Indeed, My servants – no authority will you have over them, except those who follow you of the deviators. – Koran 15:42 

And so, Satans personal mission started with Adam and Eve. The account of the garden took place after this.

One may ask if it was “right” of God to allow Satan to roam free to deceive and mislead humans. The simple answer is that Satan himself admits he has no power except over those who willingly follow him. Satan would wash his hands off even them by declaring…

I had no authority over you except that I invited you, and you responded to me. So do not blame me; but blame yourselves. – Koran 14:22 

http://www.abovetopsecret.com/forum/thread985773/pg1

And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God: but unto them that are without, all these things are done in parables: 

That seeing they may see, and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand; lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them. 
– Mark 4:11-12 

Clearly, Jesus intended that only a select few get his message.
He was preventing the others from being forgiven, which is pretty ironic considering Christians believe Jesus came to save everybody from sin. If this verse wasn’t the result of a mistranslation or textual corruption, then I don’t know why Jesus did such a thing, but I fully believe that Jesus knew what he was doing.

Either way, I have three simple questions for Christians, especially those who believe that Jesus came to save all sinners.

1. Why didn’t Jesus want the others to convert and be forgiven of their sins? 
2. How could a Christian honestly say that Jesus came to save everybody from sin, when he clearly didn’t want some to be forgiven of their sins?
3. If those same people accepted that Jesus died on the cross for their sins (according to sin sacrifice theology), wouldn’t that foil Jesus’ plan to keep them from being forgiven? 

I believe these are some extremely simple questions that can be addressed directly, so please do so.

Discuss!

http://www.abovetopsecret.com/forum/thread973757/pg1#pid17005210

But the Pharisees and the teachers of the law who belonged to their sect complained to his disciples, “Why do you eat and drink with tax collectors and sinners?” Jesus answered them, “It is not the healthy who need a doctor, but the sick. I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.” – Luke 5:30-32 

If the popular Christian doctrine that “all men have sinned” held any merit, Jesus would have said he was here for everybody, because everybody – being sinners – would have needed Jesus.

Instead, Jesus distinguishes the sinners from the righteous.
He acknowledged the existence of righteous people – as opposed to the sinners on whom he was focused on. The righteous make it by their own faith and righteousness whereas its the sinners, “the lost sheep” for whom he came. This theme is echoed in many other places in the Bible, especially in the Old Testament, comparisons are made between the “righteous” and the“unrighteous”, “wicked”. The best example would be the entire chapter of Ezekiel 18. The righteous are contrasted with the unrighteous, in terms of their behavior and the way they would be dealt with.

IMO, being righteous implies refraining from evil and doing good habitually, while of course, believing in God. When a “righteous” man slips by sinning, he would repent and seek forgiveness from God (Psalm 51)… as opposed to an unrighteous man who does not repent and goes on to justify it and being mindless of God.

The prayer that Jesus taught his people does not echo Pauls ideas about all men being sinners and the need for sin sacrifice. Instead it teaches that one needs to forgiving in order to be forgiven by God. Pauls erroneous teaching that “all men have sinned” is a foundation for the doctrine of “sin sacrifice”. It takes away the need for repentance on a daily basis through prayer. i.e – “forgive us our sins, as we have forgiven those who sin against us”.

God knows best.

http://www.abovetopsecret.com/forum/thread973284/pg1